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Just a question: why do you normalize the MTF on the second value in the array?

Open sevbogae opened this issue 9 months ago • 1 comments

In the normalization of the MTF, you normalize on the second element:

tmp = ft_fit[1];
for (i=0; i<ft_len; i++) {
  ft_fit[i]= ft_fit[i]/tmp;
}

Why not ft_fit[0]?

I suppose your comment has something to do with it, but I don't really see what you mean... // imagej FT is squared sum of positive negative spatial frequencies, except for FT(0)

sevbogae avatar Apr 01 '25 15:04 sevbogae

For some reason ft_fit[0] has a too low value which is probably be related to normalization and the DC/mean component in the image, The imagej FFT is briefly described here: https://wsr.imagej.net/macros/examples/TestArrayFourier.txt As I understand it, The FFT is a function of the RMS of positive and negative frequencies. I hope this helps you further.

emx77 avatar Apr 02 '25 13:04 emx77