why we need minus w_y_i in the end?

[abeardear]

trafficstars

i don't understand why we need minus w_y_i (or x_i) in the end of the formula. silly question------

[luoyetx]

take a look at the derivatives. here is the latex version

[abeardear]

you remove y_i != j, so we should do it. Am I right?

[luoyetx]

Yes. The first item is the original fc derivatives.

[abeardear]

I understand it. Thank you for your patience.

[auroua]

Does the definition of J equals the equation (4) in original paper? I can't understand the derivation from 1 to 2 in your latex version. I have wrote some definition of the relations about different variables. Can you help me to point out what I have wrong. Thanks!